Mathematical Masturbation

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Mathematical Masturbation

Postby sirineou » Mon Jan 13, 2014 5:46 am

I noticed BKBill's new signature
[b]111,111,111 X 111,111,111 = 12,345,678,987,654,321 or something like that

and I thought it might be more visually attractive to express it in the form of an addition Pyramid
I started a new thread as to no contaminate the other one with my mindless drible.
piramid.JPG

them I remember an other one from my college days, staying with the Pyramid motif :mrgreen:
math.JPG

Nobody likes to play with themselves,err.. I mean by themselves so feel free to join in.
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Re: Mathematical Masturbation

Postby Roger Ramjet » Mon Jan 13, 2014 6:13 am

Here's a simple one: On a 12-hour digital clock, what is the smallest interval between two times that are palindromic (can be read forwards and backwards as the same number)?
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Re: Mathematical Masturbation

Postby sirineou » Mon Jan 13, 2014 7:28 am

Roger Ramjet wrote:Here's a simple one: On a 12-hour digital clock, what is the smallest interval between two times that are palindromic (can be read forwards and backwards as the same number)?

between 9:59 and 10:01 ?
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Re: Mathematical Masturbation

Postby MGV12 » Mon Jan 13, 2014 7:57 am

Everyone knows what this symbol stands for but what is its exact value? No cheating now :roll:

index1.jpg
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Re: Mathematical Masturbation

Postby sirineou » Mon Jan 13, 2014 8:06 am

MGV12 wrote:Everyone knows what this symbol stands for but what is its exact value? No cheating now :roll:

index1.jpg

there is no exact value 3.14....infinity :?:
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Re: Mathematical Masturbation

Postby sirineou » Mon Jan 13, 2014 8:24 am

Ok here is an odd one
How can 1=2 :mrgreen:
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Re: Mathematical Masturbation

Postby Roger Ramjet » Mon Jan 13, 2014 8:32 am

sirineou wrote:between 9:59 and 10:01 ?

Is that your answer? Better read the question again. I'd only give you 6 out of 10.
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Re: Mathematical Masturbation

Postby sirineou » Mon Jan 13, 2014 8:35 am

Roger Ramjet wrote:
sirineou wrote:between 9:59 and 10:01 ?

Is that your answer? Better read the question again. I'd only give you 6 out of 10.

I take it, :lol:
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Re: Mathematical Masturbation

Postby Roger Ramjet » Mon Jan 13, 2014 8:36 am

sirineou wrote:Ok here is an odd one
How can 1=2

You are wrong again. 2=1 not 1=2
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Re: Mathematical Masturbation

Postby sirineou » Mon Jan 13, 2014 8:40 am

Roger Ramjet wrote:
sirineou wrote:Ok here is an odd one
How can 1=2

You are wrong again. 2=1 not 1=2

Wrong, But I will give you 7 out of 10 because I am not a stingy Pom like you :mrgreen:
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Re: Mathematical Masturbation

Postby MGV12 » Mon Jan 13, 2014 8:42 am

sirineou wrote:
MGV12 wrote:Everyone knows what this symbol stands for but what is its exact value? No cheating now :roll:

index1.jpg

there is no exact value 3.14....infinity :?:


And you are wrong again ... there is a general belief that Pi is infinite but that has not been proven.

The current known number of digits is 10 Trillion .... [?] ... so that is the exact value of Pi until proven otherwise.

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Re: Mathematical Masturbation

Postby MGV12 » Mon Jan 13, 2014 8:45 am

sirineou wrote:Ok here is an odd one
How can 1=2 :mrgreen:


If you are referring to the Algebraic proof version ... it can't ... that is in fact a fallacy.

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Re: Mathematical Masturbation

Postby sirineou » Mon Jan 13, 2014 8:55 am

MGV12 wrote:
sirineou wrote:Ok here is an odd one
How can 1=2 :mrgreen:


If you are referring to the Algebraic proof version ... it can't ... that is in fact a fallacy.

There you go again letting facts interfere with the truth

Let: x = 1
=> (implies that) x=x
=> x^2 = x^2 (squares of equal amounts)
=> x^2 - x^2 = x^2 - x^2
=> (x^2 - x^2) = (x-x)(x+x) (product of two squares)
=> x(x-x) = (x+x)(x-x) (removing x as a common element from both sides)
=> x = (x+x)
Now lets say x = 1
=> 1 = 1+1
=> 1 = 2

How is that a Fellatio ??
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Re: Mathematical Masturbation

Postby MGV12 » Mon Jan 13, 2014 9:08 am

sirineou wrote:
MGV12 wrote:
sirineou wrote:Ok here is an odd one
How can 1=2 :mrgreen:


If you are referring to the Algebraic proof version ... it can't ... that is in fact a fallacy.

There you go again letting facts interfere with the truth

Let: x = 1
=> (implies that) x=x
=> x^2 = x^2 (squares of equal amounts)
=> x^2 - x^2 = x^2 - x^2
=> (x^2 - x^2) = (x-x)(x+x) (product of two squares)
=> x(x-x) = (x+x)(x-x) (removing x as a common element from both sides)
=> x = (x+x)
Now lets say x = 1
=> 1 = 1+1
=> 1 = 2

How is that a Fellatio ??


This is using different letters but the principle is the same:

To "cancel" a quantity from both sides of an equation is to divide both sides of the equation by it. So, in this step of the proof we are attempting to divide both sides of the equation by (IMAGE) .

However, division only makes sense when the number you are dividing by is non-zero. In this proof, (IMAGE) , because we assumed in step 1 that a=b!

Therefore, it is not legitimate to divide both sides of the equation by (IMAGE) , because that would be division by zero, which does not make any sense (as explained below).

In essence, this proof boils down to saying "1 times 0 equals 2 times 0, therefore 1 equals 2". The fallacy is that, just because two numbers give you the same answer (zero) after you multiply them each by zero, doesn't necessarily mean that the two numbers are the same, because anything when multiplied by zero gives zero.

This is also the reason division by zero does not make sense: there isn't just one unambiguously determined number q such that (IMAGE) , so there isn't any number that we can uniquely and unambiguously define the quotient 0/0 to be.

If you tried to divide 1 (or some other non-zero number) by 0, you'd run into a different problem: in this case, there is no number q at all such that (IMAGE) , so there is nothing that we can define the quotient 1/0 to be.

That's why division by zero is undefined (not just because it's a rule somebody decided on!)


Fellatio indeed ... how rude! :lol:

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Re: Mathematical Masturbation

Postby BKKBILL » Mon Jan 13, 2014 9:52 am

Sirineou thanks for noticing goodness just post a numerical signature and now I have a headache . How about this little problem. :mrgreen:

The stock oddity
Some folks get a thrill from playing the market. Maybe you are one of them. Sometimes you win. Sometimes you lose but those are the risks of the game. 
What's the oddity? 

Winning and losing aren't as simple as you think.

Let's say you invest $10 in the market and you make a 10 percent return. You now have $11. Now, let's say you lose 10 percent. Out of $11, that's $1.10 leaving you with $9.90 which means you are down ten cents on the deal. You gained the same percentage as you lost yet you came out behind. 

Well, you might speculate it has to do with the order of the transaction. After all, the 10 percent you lost was bigger than the 10 percent you gained because you were already up on the deal. That means reversing the order should have the opposite effect. Right? 

Start with $10. Now lose 10 percent first. You have nine dollars. Then gain ten percent. That's 90 cents leaving you with...$9.90.

Yep. You lost money again.

Strange as it may seem, a gain and a loss of the exact same percentage will always leave you with less cash - regardless of the order in which they occur.
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